"A shark on whiskey is mighty risky, but a shark on beer is a beer engineer" - Tad Ghostal
There are a whole bunch of people who love this sort of question at www.physicsforums.com!
The Apollo guys did just that...
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gtdiHDxh3LU
Definitely be lower... more drag on the bearing in the drive line for one.
Easiest way to answer this for yourself, without needing to do any calculations... take it to the extreme. Replace that 100kg with 100000kg... do you think it'll make the same top end? Same applies for the 100kg weight, there's just less difference.
Gotta be able to apply enough force to overcome the coefficient of friction :P
As long as you can do that It'll accelerate.
But Imdying is right I think. Small bikes with a heavier rider don't have as high top speed as with a smaller rider (maybe it could still get up there but very slowly?) Thing is, engines are not completely efficient, you have loss somewhere along the line so this extra mass could mean more work by the motor and we know some of the energy the engine puts out is heat, so a protion of the top speed must be used in the "creation" of this heat.
Blabbering again, sorry...
Ha, you're spot on there.
Who made these assumptions? Air resistance and rolling friction are always affected by mass. If we pretended they were not then yes, the max velocity would be the same.Originally Posted by Someone
Fuck. That's me not going to get any work done for a few days now. Oh...there's even a computational physics subforum. Fortran 95 rocks!Originally Posted by MattRSK
Nope, it affects a number of different forces, not all of which are linear.Originally Posted by Imdying
Originally Posted by Kickha
Originally Posted by Akzle
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