
Originally Posted by
Graystone
So let me get this straight, social factors we know shift the average by a few points only, gender shifts it by none at all, correct?
Incorrect.
Nice Try Cathy.

Originally Posted by
Graystone
Just how do you get from there to concluding social factors causing greater variance is implausible? Did the study show something I missed, or are you gish galloping somewhere else now?
There is no Gish Gallop here - I've not asked you to read entire books or watch entire long format videos - in all bits - I've posted the relevant excerpt and included a link OR pointed you to a time stamp.
Again - Go learn your Fallacies and what they mean.
But back to the original complaint - if the variance between men and women was a difference of only a few points (so the SD was much closer for each dataset) - you would have a point. But the higher up you go, the more the ratio tilts, which means a factor capable of a few points of adjustment does not explain that discrepency.
Thus, we are left with the Social factor being negligible at best, and irrelevant at worst - there is something else that must cause the difference in variation and this aligns exceptionally tightly with the Male Variability hypothesis.
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
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