Ok the law is pretty clear on fraud for joe bloggs public. You present your check for goods knowing that you have no funds to cover it, bank persues complaint, charges follows, police prosecute and judge sentences you.
But what about businesses?
What if they knowingly order stock, onsell or receive payment for said stock, but don't pay the supplier.
How does this now become a civil matter not a criminal?
Unless of course its lots of money to involve the SFO.
Surely the senario is the same?
So why does Mr White Collar suddenly get protected from prosecution?
Also what if Mr White Collar was a Justice of the Peace and used his influence to gain credit?
Would this person then not be fit to be a JP?
Let alone a director of several companies using offshore financing to create new compaines in which to hide his dealings.
Some thoughts to ponder but some serious input would be appreciated all the same
Cheers
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