Except, not a fallacy if the person is held to be an expert in the field...
https://www.logicallyfallacious.com/...l-to-Authority
Appealing to authority is valid when the authority is actually a legitimate (debatable) authority on the facts of the argument.
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
Certainly in the softer sciences, expert opinion is valid, on the proviso that it is backed by some form of evidence.
In fact, There have been numerous peer reviewed and published scientific papers that are essential opinion on a topic, with reference to the available evidence.
You mean like multiple IQ tests across large scale populations all showing Males have a greater test variation?
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
Suck it up boys.
https://www.stuff.co.nz/national/pol...ad-in-new-poll
Soft science is not fit for purpose here.
Yet all you've posted is some stats which do not support your causality conclusion, a paper which actively denies it, and an opinion article. Why don't you instead post one of these peer reviewed and published 'essential opinions' to support your belief?
Exactly like that, none of that numerous evidence tells us there is a direct causal link between the IQ variance and gender biology. Stop trying to shoehorn your unscientific sexism into their real science you fucking charlatan.
You've repeatedly affirmed that there is a social science aspect, and social science is definitely a softer science.
There is no other explanation, that explains the repeated results of multiple, large scale test results.
Eh, not quite. It certainly says they haven't proved the Causal link - and I even conceded that point (cause that is part of being intellectually honest) however - it did mention that:
1: "Scientists have showed on intact animals that other factors such as genetics and gender itself are mostly responsible forthe sex differences in behavior and cognition." - and that since we are part of the animal kingdom, it is not unreasonable that the above should hold true for us as well
2: "Nevertheless, also according to the numerous published studies and animal experiments, testosterone seems to affect brain functions." - Which has been at the core of my argument all along. We are not the same, so expecting the same performance isn't reasonable
3: "Many researchers in this field complain about negative results that are very difficult to publish in the relevant journals." It seems that experiments that don't conform to a certain ideological narrative are being suppressed.
By one of the leading authorities in this field.
I've referenced the Scottish experiment (which is considered one of the Gold Standards in this area) and a couple of papers that did an analysis of this. I've also referenced a paper that indicates that the results support the Male Variability theory.
Even if I grant you that statement, you are still left with a large body of evidence that points to a singular conclusion of there being a biological component.
So is Steven Pinker a Charlatan who is sexist?
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
I've repeatedly affirmed its plausibility.
There's no other explanation? Isn't that the god of the gaps argument? Pretty difficult to conclude causality based on what isn't there, try using what is instead.
It actively denies your conclusion that causality has been proven.
So do any of those analysis's or indications make the conclusion you are?
Who the fuck is Stephen Plinker and why should I care?
That makes no sense given what it is in response to.
Not really a god of the gaps, more like deductive reasoning - when the impossible (or in this case, contradictory) has been eliminated, the improbable (or in this case, socially taboo) must remain.
In this case, every other explanation for the differences (such as social conditioning etc.) fails because it is invalidated by other studies.
On that one paper, it says it's not a Causal link - and I conceded that, however when I cited it, I was referencing that in Animals, Causal differences have been found, so it is not a stretch, since we are Animals.
There is this: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4270278/
I dunno who Steven Plinker is either.Studies of young infants and children (Matsuzawa et al., 2001), and especially longitudinal studies (Giedd et al., 1999), may help explain the causal direction and the development of sex differences in the relation between brain neuroanatomy and cognitive performance.
Steven Pinker on the other hand is only a leading authority on evolutionary psychology and the computational theory of mind.
But that still doesn't answer the question - is he a Sexist Charlatan too?
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
I've repeatedly affirmed that is is plausible there is a social bias (social science aspect), I haven't repeatedly affirmed there definitely is one.
Except it has not been eliminated, there is just a lack of evidence for it, ie, a gap.
It is most definetly a stretch, that is why they specifically said it did not prove a causal link.
That conclusion is nowhere near the same as the one you try to draw, highlight the "may help explain" bit.
So, no reason I should care, leading authorities in scientific field get there by letting their science do the talking. I don't know him, nor do I follow his work, so I'm not sure how you expect me to answer that question? Or why it should be relevant?
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