
Originally Posted by
Graystone
Let's just trim the chaff, so as not to commit the fallacy of lost prophets.
The primary contention being discussed is that even for a proof, you believe there is an exception where an appeal to authority can be used to prove a point. Though you agree that for scientific matters this exception is not to be applied. For other matters, the sources are quite clear on the inductive nature of such appeals, so to satisfy your side of the contention two premises must be fulfilled.
1) The fallacy should be interpreted differently (if an exception is only applied in some cases this is a different interpretation) based on the field being discussed.
2) That an inductive argument is a valid form of proof.
Now a simple question, since at least one of us knows the value of ensuring correct interpretation of wording during a discussion, do you agree with the quantification of your contention and the two premises it relies on? Note that I'm not asking if you agree with the premises themselves, just if you find the summary I have written valid.
Short answer - no, I don't find it valid.
On your first statement - you are trying to put the cart before the horse. The definition of the fallacy remains the same, what changes is self-contained within the field of discussion. If inductive arguments are valid for a field, then citing a recognized expert, in a discussion within that field is not fallacious. If inductive arguments are not valid (such as science), then citing a recognized expert would be fallacious. The definition has not changed for the fallacy, The changing variable is the field itself and the appropriate standard of proof therein.
On the second statement, it's missing a qualifier (which happens to be very important) - it depends on the field - in some fields, inductive arguments are valid.
So your first statement is fundamentally false, the second statement needs to be clarified.
Physics; Thou art a cruel, heartless Bitch-of-a-Mistress
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