
Originally Posted by
rainman
So... it's still individual failings? Did you not read my earlier post? I'm not in disagreement that individual failings cause individual failure (kinda obvious), but you have a large hurdle to overcome if you claim that this is the only factor, and that economic and social context is of no relevance. Particularly given the record of the past 30 years here and elsewhere.
But I’m not claiming it’s the only factor. Just that it’s by far the largest one and the only one the affected individual can influence.
Firstly, it's your wacko theory, you provide the proof. Secondly, I'm not wanting the "successful" to "drag the less successful along", just to stop taking more than a reasonable share. It's clear, looking at data and reality, that the "rising tide lifting all boats"/"trickle-down" bullshit is just that, and that even if the pie is getting bigger, the few keep taking more and more of it for themselves, and the many are where they are taking it from. Richest 1% up 3.odd %, poorest 90% down about the same. Worse in the US. Facts, however inconvenient, do not fail to exist when they are ignored.
Dude, that’s so fraught with loaded buzzwords and tired old socialist bleating it doesn’t warrant a reply. However, I’m interested in your theory that the 1% are taking “it” from the rest. Can you demonstrate that “the rest” ever had “it” or even contributed to the making of “it” in the first place?
Not a world I want to live in, thanks. If modern society’s performance takes a significant hit you’ll get your wish.
We can do so much better. Indeed we could, individual performance contributes to the success of the collective, it doesn’t work the other way around.
I thought so, thus my critique. If you claim individual weakness is the sole cause of economic impoverishment, then, considering that brown people are more represented in lower economic stats, your conclusion is inevitably racist. To spell it out: you're saying brown people have a greater tendency to individual failure.
No, I said low income wasn’t the cause of other failures. And if some “brown people” fail economically more than others I’d suggest that may well be partly because they value economic measures of success less than do others. Hence my reference to each individual’s own measure of success being the only relevant measure of their performance.
That being the case, why is it necessary to encumber those, (brown or blue) who value economic security below other measures of success with vast wads of cash?
If, on the other hand a simple lack of will or respect for the cost of maintaining our society or even downright fraud is the root of the lack of economic success then why would any external entity support such behaviour? Better, surely to supply the opportunity to change than the rewards of that change in advance.
If you think about this honestly, you (I'm sure) will realise it's nonsense. Therefore, there are other, extrinsic factors involved in the observed phenomenon beyond the individual's choices and weaknesses (even though these are of course relevant factors). And, even considering the role of different intrinsic levels of application, how much is due to motivation and relatively correctable factors, and how much to capability and opportunity? Think about this a bit and you'l see I'm not just arguing at a simplistic level for the rich to give more money to the poor.
Bookmarks