I'm not aware that the earlier map made any statement as to "Palestinian land ownership".
My understanding is that it related to "Palestinian land occupation".
The following document indicates that the Arab population occupied approx 85% of the
land referred to as Palestine at that stage.
https://www.foreignpolicyjournal.com...ion-of-israel/
I believe that you are incorrect where you say "it was Britain's land to decide what to
do with it."
As the document states, Britain had occupied Palestine during WW1 (1917), and as the
"occupying power", it was granted right to act as an
Administrator for the territory.
Britain had no land ownership or disposal rights re Palestine.
A proposal - under the auspices of UNSCOP - was to produce a recommendation on partition
of Palestine, to be presented to the UN General Assembly.
Perhaps UNSCOP's recommendation for land allocation to Arab (45%) and Jewish (55%) - in
stark contrast to then current land occupation - as well as the report's denial of the
right to Palestinian self determination - was a prime source of Arab discontent.
And the paragraph immediately prior to the section heading "The Authority of the U.N.
with Regard to Partition" - and how the state of Israel came to be declared - also gives
another clue as to why the Arabs chose to fight.
As does the Conclusion section of the document.
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