If the rate of incident drops dramatically due to the introduction of a vaccine but the rate of death per incident doesn't change fuck all, how can the vaccine possibly be considered a contributor to a reduction in deaths per incident?
Right, which is clearly one not relevant when talking about the effectiveness of the vaccine. It is also clearly one not relevant when you're...
or trying to say
The default measure of death rate (unless otherwise specified) being one weighted to population.
Now I think it good that you have changed your mind based on the rational points I've put forward, it would make the discourse clearer if in future if you acknowledge that when it happens, rather than trying to have a discussion talking at cross purposes.
"A shark on whiskey is mighty risky, but a shark on beer is a beer engineer" - Tad Ghostal
"A shark on whiskey is mighty risky, but a shark on beer is a beer engineer" - Tad Ghostal
But you outright said you were
note, that one says 'number dying from', nothing to do with this death rate per incidence cop out
and then said many things like
The rate of deaths from measles absolutely did drop dramatically in 1964, when the vaccine was introduced. Why can you not accept this?
Oh, and obviously I didn't misinterpret anything from the graph, since I've been correcting your interpretation of it ever since I saw it.
"A shark on whiskey is mighty risky, but a shark on beer is a beer engineer" - Tad Ghostal
There are currently 1 users browsing this thread. (0 members and 1 guests)
Bookmarks